Updated May-2026 Test Engine to Practice 156-315.81 Dumps & Practice Exam
Dumps Collection 156-315.81 Test Engine Dumps Training With 634 Questions
The CCSE R81 certification is highly valued in the cybersecurity industry and is recognized by many organizations as a benchmark for measuring the expertise of security professionals. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification demonstrates that the holder has a deep understanding of Check Point security solutions and can effectively manage and deploy them in a variety of environments. It also provides a competitive edge to professionals seeking to advance their careers in the cybersecurity field.
CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam, also known as the Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification exam, is a highly respected certification exam for IT professionals seeking to demonstrate their knowledge and expertise in Check Point security solutions. 156-315.81 exam tests the candidate's ability to install, configure, and manage Check Point security solutions, as well as their knowledge of advanced security concepts and best practices. 156-315.81 exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security, threat prevention, VPNs, remote access, and security management.
NEW QUESTION # 308
Besides fw monitor, what is another command that can be used to capture packets?
- A. arp
- B. tcpdump
- C. ping
- D. traceroute
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tcpdump is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic on a given interface2. It can be used to troubleshoot connectivity or performance issues, or to inspect the content of the packets2. To use tcpdump, you need to access the Security Gateway in expert mode and run tcpdump -i <interface> [options] [filter]
2. You can specify various options and filters to customize the output, such as source or destination IP address, port number, protocol, packet size, etc2. You can also save the captured packets to a file for later analysis by using the -w option2. For more information about tcpdump, you can run man tcpdump or visit the official website3.
NEW QUESTION # 309
What are possible Automatic Reactions in SmartEvent?
- A. Web Mail, Block Service. SNMP Trap. SmartTask, Geo Protection
- B. Mail. SNMP Trap, Block Source. Block Event Activity, External Script
- C. Web Mail, Forward to SandBlast Appliance, SNMP Trap, External Script
- D. Web Mail. Block Destination, SNMP Trap. SmartTask
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The possible Automatic Reactions in SmartEvent are Mail, SNMP Trap, Block Source, Block Event Activity, and External Script1. Automatic Reactions are actions that SmartEvent can perform automatically when a specific event occurs2. They can help you respond quickly and efficiently to security incidents and threats2. The Automatic Reactions are1:
Mail: This reaction sends an email notification to a specified recipient with the details of the event. You can customize the subject and the body of the email, and use variables to include relevant information.
SNMP Trap: This reaction sends an SNMP trap to a specified SNMP server with the details of the event. You can customize the OID and the community string of the trap, and use variables to include relevant information.
Block Source: This reaction blocks the source IP address of the event from accessing your network for a specified duration. You can choose to block the source on all gateways or on specific gateways. You can also choose to block the source on a specific port or service.
Block Event Activity: This reaction blocks the specific activity that triggered the event from occurring again for a specified duration. You can choose to block the activity on all gateways or on specific gateways. You can also choose to block the activity on a specific port or service.
External Script: This reaction runs an external script on a specified server with the details of the event as arguments. You can use any script that can be executed by the operating system of the server, such as bash, perl, python, etc. You can use variables to include relevant information in the script arguments.
References: SmartEvent R81.20 Administration Guide - Check Point Software, SmartEvent - Check Point Software
NEW QUESTION # 310
What is the correct Syntax for adding an access-rule via R80 API?
- A. add access-rule <CR> and follow the wizard
- B. add rule position 1 name "Rule 1" policy-package "Standard" add service "http"
- C. add access-rule layer "Network" position 1 name "Rule 1" service. 1 "SMTP" service.2 "hup"
- D. add access-rule layer "Network" action "Allow"
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct syntax for adding an access-rule via R80 API is to use the add access-rule command with the layer, position, name, and service parameters. The layer parameter specifies the name of the access control policy layer where the rule will be added. The position parameter specifies the ordinal number in which to place the rule in the rulebase. The name parameter specifies the name of the rule. The service parameter specifies one or more services that match this rule. Reference: [Check Point Security Expert R81 API Reference Guide], page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 311
Alice & Bob are going to use Management Data Plane Separation and therefore the routing separation needs to be enabled. Which of the following command is true for enabling the Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS):
- A. set mdps data plane off
- B. set mdps mgmt plane on
- C. set mdps split brain on
- D. set mdps split plane on
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct command for enabling the management data plane separation (MDPS) is set mdps mgmt plane on. This command enables routing separation between management and data planes on a security gateway. This means that management traffic will use a different routing table than data traffic, which can improve security and performance. Reference: [Check Point Security Expert R81 Administration Guide], page 76.
NEW QUESTION # 312
What are the two modes for SNX (SSL Network Extender)?
- A. Network Mode and Hub Mode
- B. Network Mode and Application Mode
- C. Office Mode and Hub Mode
- D. Visitor Mode and Office Mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SNX (SSL Network Extender) is a thin VPN client installed on an endpoint user computer that provides secure remote access to a corporate network. It can be used with Mobile Access blade or the IPsec VPN blade via the Mobile Access or SNX portals1. SNX has two modes: Network Mode and Application Mode2.
Network Mode: In this mode, SNX creates a virtual network adapter on the endpoint computer and assigns it an IP address from the internal network. This allows the endpoint computer to access all the resources on the internal network as if it was physically connected to it. Network Mode supports all IP-based applications, including TCP and UDP applications2.
Application Mode: In this mode, SNX does not create a virtual network adapter on the endpoint computer, but instead intercepts the traffic of specific applications and forwards it to the Security Gateway. Application Mode supports only TCP-based applications that are defined in the Mobile Access policy. Application Mode is useful when Network Mode is not supported or when granular control over the applications is required2.
References: : SSL Network Extender : SNX Modes
NEW QUESTION # 313
What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?
- A. OS and network statistics
- B. Configuration and database files
- C. Firewall logs
- D. System message logs
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 314
What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?
- A. R77.30 and later
- B. R76 and later
- C. R80.10 and Later
- D. R70 and Later
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. R80.10 and later.
According to the Check Point documentation1, the Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade (MVC) is a new feature in R80.40 and higher that replaces the Connectivity Upgrade (CU) method. MVC allows you to upgrade a cluster to a newer version without a loss in connectivity and test the new version on some of the cluster members before you decide to upgrade the rest of the cluster members. The MVC feature supports the following destination versions2:
R80.10
R80.20
R80.30
R80.40
R81
R81.20
The other options are incorrect because they are either not supported by MVC or they are older than the source version (R80.40).
References:
Multi-Version Cluster (MVC) replaces Connectivity Upgrade (CU) in R80.401 ClusterXL upgrade methods and paths2
NEW QUESTION # 315
What is the order of NAT priorities?
- A. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
- B. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT
- C. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
- D. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is determined by the type of NAT rule that is applied to the traffic. There are three types of NAT rules in Check Point: static NAT, IP pool NAT, and hide NAT12.
* Static NAT: This type of NAT rule maps a single IP address to another single IP address. It is usually used to allow external hosts to access internal servers or devices. Static NAT has the highest priority among the NAT rules, and it is applied before the security policy is enforced12.
* IP pool NAT: This type of NAT rule maps a range of IP addresses to another range of IP addresses. It is usually used to balance the load among multiple servers or devices. IP pool NAT has the second highest priority among the NAT rules, and it is applied after the security policy is enforced12.
* Hide NAT: This type of NAT rule hides a group of IP addresses behind a single IP address or an interface. It is usually used to allow internal hosts to access external resources. Hide NAT has the lowest priority among the NAT rules, and it is applied after the security policy is enforced12.
Therefore, the order of NAT priorities is: static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT.
References: 1: Check Point R81 Security Administration Guide - Check Point Software, page 209 2: Check Point R81 Security Engineering Guide - Check Point Software, page 163
NEW QUESTION # 316
Which command is used to display status information for various components?
- A. show system messages
- B. sysmess all
- C. show all systems
- D. show sysenv all
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 317
Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?
- A. cp.macro
- B. Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files
- C. license File (.lic)
- D. Contract file (.xml)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
cp.macro is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code. It is located in the $FWDIR/conf directory on the Security Management Server. The cp.macro file contains a list of features and their corresponding codes, which are used to generate the license file (.lic) based on the contract file (.xml). The license file (.lic) is then installed on the Security Gateway or Security Management Server to activate the licensed features. References: Check Point R81 Licensing and Contract Administration Guide, page 10
NEW QUESTION # 318
In Advanced Permanent Tunnel Configuration, to set the amount of time the tunnel test runs without a response before the peer host is declared 'down', you would set the_________?
- A. life_sign_timeout
- B. life sign timeout
- C. life_sign_polling_interval
- D. life sign polling interval
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Advanced Permanent Tunnel Configuration, the life_sign_timeout parameter sets the amount of time the tunnel test runs without a response before the peer host is declared 'down'. The life_sign_polling_interval parameter sets the interval between each tunnel test packet sent to the peer host.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018 Permanent Tunnel Configuration
NEW QUESTION # 319
Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?
- A. Full Access
- B. Super User
- C. Read Only All
- D. Auditor
Answer: C
Explanation:
The pre-defined Permission Profile that should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them is Read Only All. This profile grants read-only access to all features and blades in SmartConsole, including logs and reports. This profile is suitable for auditors who need to review the security policy and settings, but not change them. References: R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 57.
NEW QUESTION # 320
What is false regarding prerequisites for the Central Deployment usage?
- A. The Security Gateway must have a policy installed
- B. Security Gateway must have the latest CPUSE Deployment Agent
- C. The administrator must have write permission on SmartUpdate
- D. No need to establish SIC between gateways and the management server, since the CDT tool will take care about SIC automatically.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 321
Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?
- A. Capsule Enterprise
- B. Capsule Cloud
- C. Capsule Docs
- D. Capsule Workspace
Answer: A
Explanation:
Check Point Capsule is a suite of solutions designed to provide comprehensive mobile security and secure access. The components of Check Point Capsule include:
Capsule Docs (Option A): A component that secures document sharing and protects sensitive data.
Capsule Cloud (Option B): A component that provides cloud-based security services.
Capsule Workspace (Option D): A component that provides secure workspace on mobile devices.
Option C, "Capsule Enterprise," is not a recognized component of Check Point Capsule based on the available information. Therefore, it is the correct answer as the component that is NOT part of Check Point Capsule.
References: Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R81 training materials and documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 322
Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named "emailserver1" with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?
- A. mgmt_cli add host name "emailserver1" ip-address 10.50.23.90
- B. mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
- C. mgmt_cli add host name "myHost12 ip" address 10.50.23.90
- D. mgmt_cli add host "emailserver1" address 10.50.23.90
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://weekly-geekly.github.io/articles/339924/index.html
NEW QUESTION # 323
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The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule based and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?
- A. The connection required a Security server
- B. The packet is the second in an established TCP connection
- C. The connection is destined for a server within the network
- D. The packets are not multicast
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 324
Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
- A. A worldwide collaborative security network
- B. Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category
- C. Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits
- D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The Check Point ThreatCloud is a worldwide collaborative security network that collects and analyzes threat data from millions of sensors, security gateways, and other sources, and delivers real-time threat intelligence and protection to Check Point products.
NEW QUESTION # 325
Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 326
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The CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam covers a range of topics that are essential for security professionals, including network security principles, firewall technologies, VPNs, and intrusion prevention systems. It also covers advanced topics such as threat prevention, security management, and cloud security. 156-315.81 exam is designed to test both theoretical knowledge and practical skills, making it an ideal certification for security professionals who want to enhance their expertise in Check Point's security technologies.
CheckPoint 156-315.81 Dumps Cover Real Exam Questions: https://vcetorrent.examtorrent.com/156-315.81-prep4sure-dumps.html
